I was wondering thus. “Indian Astronomers knew of the real causes of eclipses. But the common people did not. Why? Absence of widespread scientific education is one of the leading causes of superstition.” Then I found the article below that the Roman Astronomers knew the causes of the eclipses, but they were unwilling/unable to teach the common people about the true causes of eclipses. I have heard a similar theory about the ancient Mayans. What conslusions should I draw from this?
(Besides the fact that the western media loves to highlight the superstition and deny the knowledge bits, in the Indian Context!)
After observing that high education in some ancient cultures was privy to select classes, I wondered when did “Free elementary education for all at govt. expense” begin? And for what purpose?
This informative link talks about the history of elementary education in USA: http://www.answers.com/topic/history-of-elementary-education. Two prerequisites seem to be freedom and democracy.
It appears that it became very necessary to free education systems from religion.. and to teach religion elsewhere. This is a good web-site for reference Education in England: http://www.dg.dial.pipex.com/index.shtml
Finally it appears that industrialised societies need technologically literate people to man and run them. That is possibly the govt’s interest in the ‘basic free education for all’.
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